USMLE-Rx Step 2 Qmax Challenge #23734
Check out today’s Step 2 Qmax Question Challenge.
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A 70-year-old man is seen in the emergency department because of lower left quadrant abdominal pain that he describes as “crampy.” He states that he has been able to tolerate foods and liquids. He has no past medical history of any gastrointestinal disease or surgery. Upon physical examining he is afebrile and has mild diaphoresis and abdominal pain without rebound. There is no bleeding per rectum; however, the stool is guaiac positive. CT of the abdomen is shown in the image.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A. Outpatient treatment
B. Immediate surgery
C. Hospitalization for monitoring
D. Double contrast enema
E. Immediate change to a high-fiber diet
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